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SECURITY OPERATIONS ENGINEER Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
FPSC Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
6768 Total
Questions
~10152 mins Read
Time
4 Subject Areas
🎯 High-Yield Preparation Strategy
✓ 100% Comprehensive Guide
📘 Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass
PART 1
Examination Scheme & Evaluation Blueprint
The competitive recruitment screening for SECURITY OPERATIONS ENGINEER on Senior Technical Grade / PPS-08 at National Security Operations Centre (SOC), Pakistan Digital Authority (PDA) (Case No. PDA-J0164) is conducted via a standardized 100-mark Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) written examination designed to evaluate core technical acumen, analytical depth, and public sector governance.
Examination Type
100 MCQs
Allocated Time
90 Minutes
Qualifying Score
50% Minimum
Negative Marking
0.25 Mark / Wrong
PART 2
Curriculum Syllabus & Weightage Distribution
| Test Section | Weightage | Key Topics & Technical Competencies |
|---|---|---|
| SOC Architecture, SIEM Engineering & Threat Hunting | 40% (40 MCQs) | SIEM clustering (Splunk/Elastic/Wazuh), event log ingestion, correlation rule logic, EDR telemetry, threat hunting methodology, and MITRE ATT&CK framework mapping. |
| Incident Response, Digital Forensics & Network Security | 30% (30 MCQs) | NIST SP 800-61 incident response lifecycle, memory forensics (Volatility), network packet analysis (Wireshark), malware triage, and automated SOAR orchestration. |
| Technical English & Professional Drafting | 15% (15 MCQs) | Grammar accuracy, domain vocabulary, reading comprehension of technical specifications, and executive policy memos. |
| General Knowledge & Pakistan Digital Policies | 15% (15 MCQs) | Pakistan national IT policy, Digital Pakistan framework, cybersecurity governance, geography, and current national affairs. |
PART 3
High-Yield Technical Questions & Detailed Model Answers
Q1. Explain the 6 phases of the NIST SP 800-61 Incident Handling Guide and describe how you isolate an endpoint compromised by active ransomware.
💡 Model Answer: The NIST 6 phases are: (1) Preparation; (2) Detection & Analysis; (3) Containment (short-term & long-term); (4) Eradication; (5) Recovery; and (6) Post-Incident Activity (Lessons Learned). To isolate a ransomware-compromised host: (1) Immediately execute network containment via EDR agent or drop switch port to prevent lateral SMB/RPC spread; (2) Preserve volatile memory (RAM capture) for forensic key extraction; (3) Terminate malicious processes and persistence mechanisms; (4) Revoke compromised user/service account Active Directory credentials; (5) Rebuild host from verified baseline image before restoring data from air-gapped immutable backups.
Q2. Differentiate between True Positive, False Positive, True Negative, and False Negative alerts in a Security Operations Center and calculate the Precision of a SIEM correlation rule.
💡 Model Answer: True Positive (TP) = Correctly alerted on actual malicious activity; False Positive (FP) = Inadvertently alerted on benign activity; True Negative (TN) = Correctly ignored benign activity; False Negative (FN) = Failed to detect actual malicious attack (most critical danger). Precision = TP / (TP + FP), measuring the proportion of positive alerts that were genuinely malicious. Recall (Sensitivity) = TP / (TP + FN), measuring the proportion of actual attacks detected by the correlation rule.
Q3. Describe the MITRE ATT&CK Enterprise Matrix structure and explain how an attacker leverages Kerberoasting (T1558.003) for privilege escalation in Active Directory.
💡 Model Answer: MITRE ATT&CK categorizes adversary behaviors into 14 Tactics (e.g. Initial Access, Persistence, Privilege Escalation, Lateral Movement, Exfiltration) containing hundreds of detailed Techniques (TTPs). Kerberoasting (T1558.003) exploits Kerberos Ticket Granting Service (TGS) requests: Any authenticated domain user requests a TGS ticket for a Service Principal Name (SPN) associated with a service account; the domain controller returns the ticket encrypted with the service account's NTLM password hash; the attacker extracts the ticket from memory and performs offline brute-force cracking using hashcat to recover the plaintext service account password.
PART 4
Authority Selection Board Viva Voce Q&A
Scenario 1: Defending Critical Digital Infrastructure Under Active Attack
Board Question: "How will you coordinate rapid incident response and crisis communication during a major cyber breach on a core government digital service?"
💡 Strategy: Articulate enacting predetermined incident response plans, isolating affected infrastructure, preserving digital evidence for forensics, briefing the National CERT, and releasing measured public advisories.
Scenario 2: Balancing Security, Data Privacy & User Experience
Board Question: "How do you resolve conflicts between strict security controls and the demand for fast, seamless citizen user experience in public digital apps?"
💡 Strategy: Discuss Zero-Trust architecture, risk-based adaptive authentication, automated API security, and Privacy by Design principles that protect users transparently without unnecessary friction.
Scenario 3: Fiscal Transparency & Public Sector Auditing
Board Question: "What measures ensure complete transparency in procurement and financial management of high-value federal technology contracts?"
💡 Strategy: Reiterate strict adherence to PPRA rules 2004, open international competitive bidding, robust IFRS accounting records, and proactive internal audit scrutiny.
Scenario 4: Statutory Compliance & National Secrecy
Board Question: "What are your legal and ethical duties regarding sensitive government data and official secrets?"
💡 Strategy: Affirm absolute compliance with the Official Secrets Act, National Cybersecurity Policy, clean background vetting, and zero tolerance for unauthorized data sharing.
PART 5
14-Day Strategic Revision Roadmap
Phase 1: Domain Foundations & Technical Standards (Days 1 - 7)
- Days 1-2: Deep review of core domain architecture (IFRS, SIEM/SOC, GDPR/PDPA, or VAPT).
- Days 3-4: Study statutory public sector frameworks, PPRA rules, and cybersecurity policies.
- Days 5-6: Memorize essential technical formulas, network protocols, tax rates, and attack methodologies.
- Day 7: Full diagnostic domain test and analysis of weak topic areas.
Phase 2: Timed Mock Drills & Interview Rehearsal (Days 8 - 14)
- Days 8-9: Intensive review of technical English comprehension and Pakistan digital affairs.
- Days 10-11: Timed 100-MCQ mock examination runs with strict 90-minute limit.
- Days 12-13: Rehearse viva voce scenario responses, case defense, and behavioral questions.
- Day 14: Final review of essential revision notes, relaxation, and preparing application records.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
11 Questions in this set
COMPUTER APTITUDE TEST (Basic Computer Knowledge): Write the correct answer for the provided multiple-choice questions involving expert systems, industrial computer applications (POS, CIM, Actuarial accounting), and management information system (MIS) modeling.
Q. 1
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Expert systems are part of the general area of research known as
A
AI
✓ Correct
B
ES
C
STUDENT
D
RAND
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the broad field that encompasses the development of expert systems.
Q. 2
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the future, users of a computer system may identify themselves by entering a:
A
Hard print
B
Soft print
C
Voice print
✓ Correct
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Biometric identification methods include voice recognition (voice prints) for user authentication.
Q. 3
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The most prominent system in the retail sales industry is the ________ system:
A
POS (point-of-scale)
✓ Correct
B
COBOL
C
ACM
D
PC/XT
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Point of Sale systems are standard for managing transactions and inventory in retail.
Q. 4
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The integration of the computer with manufacturing is called CIM or
A
CAM
B
CAD
C
Computer manufacturing
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) refers to the full automation of a manufacturing facility.
Q. 5
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A ________ purpose computer is designed for a specific application:
A
Special
✓ Correct
B
Analog
C
Hybrid
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Special-purpose computers are built to perform one specific set of tasks or applications.
Q. 6
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Actuarial accounting system is associated with the ________ industry:
A
Insurance
✓ Correct
B
Reliable
C
Consistent
D
Exhaustive
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Actuarial science is primarily used by the insurance industry to assess risk and uncertainty.
Q. 7
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A variable that has no physical meaning and is used to obtain an initial basic feasible solution to a linear programming problem is known as:
A
Basis
B
Algorithm
C
Artificial variable
✓ Correct
D
Basic variable
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In linear programming, artificial variables are used to facilitate finding an initial feasible solution.
Q. 8
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
QUB is an example of ________ systems:
A
Problem-solving
B
Inventory
C
Electronic shopping
✓ Correct
D
Algebra
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
QUB (historically standing for Queen's University Belfast Electronic Shopping System experiment or similar early regional academic network paradigms referenced in localized commerce and MIS curriculums) is categorized as an early or specialized example of an Electronic shopping system or transactional network.
Q. 9
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Slack is the calculated time span within which the event must occur:
A
True
✓ Correct
B
False
C
Cannot be said
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Slack in project management represents the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the deadline.
Q. 10
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The latest time that the event can be delayed without delaying the completion of the entire project in PERT chart is:
A
Earliest allowable time
B
Latest allowable time
✓ Correct
C
Earliest pass
D
Latest pass
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This term defines the absolute deadline for a specific node in a PERT network.
Q. 11
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Anthony suggested that the area of management planning and control be segmented into:
A
Operational control
B
Strategic planning
C
Management control
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Anthony's framework includes Strategic Planning, Management Control, and Operational Control.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
14 Questions in this set
SYSTEMS AND DECISION-MAKING: Solve questions regarding transaction processing, data collection terminals, operations research history, and the files required for receiving and engineering control systems.
Q. 12
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following does not fall in the personal Decision-Making Area?
A
Pay-rolls
B
Cash flow analysis
✓ Correct
C
Income-tax assessment and recovery
D
Person's experience
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Cash flow analysis is typically an organizational or corporate financial function rather than personal.
Q. 13
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How much should an organisation spend for information can be determined by some type of a:
A
Cost analysis
B
Benefit analysis
C
Cost-benefit analysis
✓ Correct
D
Any of the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Organisations weigh the cost of data acquisition against the value/benefit it provides.
Q. 14
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A transportation problem in which the total supply available at the origins exactly satisfies the total demand required at the destinations is known as:
A
Degenerate solution
B
Balanced transportation problem
✓ Correct
C
Unbalanced transportation problem
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A "Balanced" problem occurs when total supply equals total demand.
Q. 15
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Operations Research came into being due to:
A
Medical reasons
B
Military reasons
✓ Correct
C
Educational reasons
D
To improve transpiration
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Operations Research originated for tactical and logistical planning during World War II.
Q. 16
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The funds management subsystems attempts to:
A
Increase cash input
B
Decrease cash output
C
Balance cash inflow with outflow
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Effective funds management ensures liquidity by matching timing of inflows and outflows.
Q. 17
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A turnaround document can be a(n):
A
Punched card
B
OCR document
C
Neither nor (b)
✓ Correct
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on the specific classification of turnaround documents in the source answer key.
Q. 18
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the financial Decision-Making system which of the following is not a transaction processing system input:
A
Cash receipts
B
Cash returns
C
Cash issues
D
Warehouse requisition ship
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Requisition slips are inventory/logistics inputs rather than direct financial transaction inputs.
Q. 19
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Header labels contain:
A
Creation data
✓ Correct
B
Control totals
C
Both and (b)
D
Either nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
File headers typically store metadata such as the creation date and file ID.
Q. 20
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Detected money errors are corrected with:
A
Debit entries
B
Credit entries
C
Both and (b)
✓ Correct
D
Neither nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adjustments for errors require offsetting debit or credit entries depending on the nature of the error.
Q. 21
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The model base contains programs:
A
Written by the firm's programmers
B
Provided by the computer vendor
C
Purchased from outside firms, such as software houses
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A Decision Support System's model base can incorporate software from various origins.
Q. 22
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Management has become more complex because:
A
There is less time to react to competitive actions
B
The equipment used in many of the firm's activities has become more complex
C
Firms have become larger
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Global competition, technological complexity, and organizational scale contribute to management difficulty.
Q. 23
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What data most likely would not be keyed into the order entry subsystem?
A
Item quantity
B
Customer number
C
Item number
D
Item cost
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Costs are usually master data retrieved from a file rather than manually keyed per order.
Q. 24
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The engineering change control system makes changes in the:
A
Operations file
✓ Correct
B
Production schedule
C
Work force data
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Design changes directly impact the steps and specifications in the operations file.
Q. 25
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Corporate modeling software can be used for:
A
Cash planning
B
Operational budgeting
C
Capital budgeting
D
All the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modeling software assists in various strategic and operational planning tasks.
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Q. 1
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under the National Disaster Management Act 2010 of Pakistan, who serves as the Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Commission (NDMC)?
A
Federal Minister for Climate Change
B
Prime Minister of Pakistan
✓ Correct
C
Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
D
Chief of Army Staff
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 3 of the National Disaster Management Act 2010, the Prime Minister of Pakistan is the ex-officio Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Commission (NDMC).
Q. 2
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) acts as the executive arm of which apex policy-making body in Pakistan?
A
National Security Council
B
Council of Common Interests (CCI)
C
National Disaster Management Commission (NDMC)
✓ Correct
D
Ministry of Interior
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under the NDM Act 2010, NDMA serves as the executive agency and secretariat for the National Disaster Management Commission (NDMC) to implement national disaster management policies.
Q. 3
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In which year did the Parliament of Pakistan formally enact the National Disaster Management Act (NDMA Act)?
A
2005
B
2007
C
2010
✓ Correct
D
2012
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The National Disaster Management Act was passed by the Parliament and received presidential assent in December 2010, replacing earlier ordinances issued after the 2005 earthquake.
Q. 4
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who chairs the Provincial Disaster Management Commission (PDMC) in each province under the NDM Act 2010?
A
Provincial Chief Secretary
B
Chief Minister of the Province
✓ Correct
C
Director General of the PDMA
D
Provincial Home Minister
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 13 of the NDM Act 2010, the Chief Minister of the Province is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Provincial Disaster Management Commission (PDMC).
Q. 5
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
At the district level in Pakistan, who serves as the head/Chairperson of the District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA)?
A
District Police Officer (DPO)
B
Deputy Commissioner (DC) / District Coordination Officer
✓ Correct
C
District Health Officer (DHO)
D
Chairman District Council
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 18 of the NDM Act 2010, the Deputy Commissioner / head of district administration acts as the Chairperson of the DDMA.
Q. 6
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under Section 30 of the NDM Act 2010, which fund was established for emergency response, relief, and rehabilitation at the federal level?
A
Prime Minister Flood Relief Fund
B
National Disaster Management Fund (NDMF)
✓ Correct
C
Federal Emergency Contingency Account
D
National Disaster Risk Reduction Endowment
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 30 of the NDM Act 2010 mandates the establishment of the National Disaster Management Fund (NDMF) to finance disaster preparedness, relief, and response operations.
Q. 7
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the primary role of the National Emergency Operations Centre (NEOC) established under NDMA?
A
Legislative scrutiny of disaster bills
B
24/7 disaster monitoring, early warning coordination, hazard tracking, and strategic emergency response command
✓ Correct
C
Conducting annual civil service examinations
D
Auditing provincial tax revenues
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NEOC operates as the national strategic hub for real-time situational awareness, hazard forecasting, multi-agency coordination, and disaster command.
Q. 8
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The 10-year strategic roadmap formulated by NDMA to guide multi-hazard risk management across Pakistan from 2012 to 2022 was known as:
A
Vision 2030 Climate Action
B
National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP)
✓ Correct
C
National Contingency Framework
D
Emergency Response Matrix
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP 2012-2022), developed in collaboration with JICA, provided a comprehensive 10-year blueprint for disaster risk reduction in Pakistan.
Q. 9
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under the Constitution (Eighteenth Amendment) Act 2010, which tier of government holds primary frontline responsibility for disaster response and relief execution in Pakistan?
A
Federal Government exclusively
B
Provincial Governments and District Administrations
✓ Correct
C
Armed Forces Headquarters
D
United Nations Resident Coordinator
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following the 18th Constitutional Amendment, disaster management and civil defence became devolved provincial subjects, with NDMA providing national policy, coordination, and international liaison.
Q. 10
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which specialized research and training arm was established under the NDM Act 2010 to build institutional capacity and professional skills in disaster management?
A
National Disaster Management Institute (NDMI) / National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)
✓ Correct
B
Civil Services Academy
C
National Defence University
D
National School of Public Policy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 26 of the NDM Act 2010 mandates the establishment of the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) for planning and promoting training and research in disaster management.
Q. 11
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In the disaster management hierarchy of Pakistan, what is the executive authority at the provincial level responsible for disaster preparedness and response?
A
District Council
B
Provincial Disaster Management Authority (PDMA)
✓ Correct
C
Provincial Assembly Committee on Climate
D
High Court Disaster Cell
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Provincial Disaster Management Authorities (PDMAs) in Punjab, Sindh, KP, Balochistan, and corresponding bodies in AJ&K (SDMA) and Gilgit-Baltistan (GBDMA) lead provincial operations.
Q. 12
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under Section 33 of the NDM Act 2010, the District Disaster Management Authority is empowered to prepare which statutory plan for its administrative jurisdiction?
A
District Annual Budget
B
District Disaster Management Plan (DDMP)
✓ Correct
C
District Land Revenue Record
D
District Police Operational Code
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Every DDMA must prepare a District Disaster Management Plan (DDMP) detailing hazard mapping, vulnerability analysis, standard operating procedures, and emergency resource inventories.
Q. 13
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which federal entity in Pakistan is officially designated for weather forecasting, cyclone tracking, and flood early warning generation?
A
Pakistan Environmental Protection Agency (Pak-EPA)
B
Pakistan Meteorological Department (PMD)
✓ Correct
C
Geological Survey of Pakistan (GSP)
D
National Highway Authority (NHA)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Pakistan Meteorological Department (PMD) under the Aviation Division / Cabinet Secretariat is the apex scientific agency for meteorological, hydrological, and seismic monitoring.
Q. 14
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which organization in Pakistan is mandated for space science applications, satellite remote sensing, and flood inundation extent mapping?
A
SUPARCO (Space and Upper Atmosphere Research Commission)
✓ Correct
B
PTCL
C
OGDCL
D
NESPAK
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SUPARCO provides satellite imagery, GIS-based damage assessment, flood extent mapping, and drought monitoring to NDMA and provincial authorities.
Q. 15
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which body in Pakistan coordinates river discharge forecasting, flood warning dissemination, and national flood protection planning among federal and provincial agencies?
A
Federal Flood Commission (FFC)
✓ Correct
B
Indus River System Authority (IRSA)
C
National Water Council
D
WAPDA Power Wing
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Federal Flood Commission (FFC), functioning under the Ministry of Water Resources, oversees national flood protection plans and inter-provincial flood coordination.
Q. 16
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under the NDM Act 2010, what penalty is prescribed for making false claims or false alarms concerning the magnitude or severity of a disaster?
A
Verbal reprimand only
B
Imprisonment extending up to two years and fine
✓ Correct
C
Cancellation of driving license
D
Immediate deportation
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 43 of the NDM Act 2010 prescribes imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or fine, or both, for circulating false alarms or warnings as to disaster.
Q. 17
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under the NDM Act 2010, who is empowered to requisition resources, vehicles, or premises for emergency rescue and relief operations during a declared disaster?
A
Authorized officers of NDMA, PDMA, or DDMA
✓ Correct
B
Private insurance agents
C
Local union council clerks unilaterally
D
Foreign humanitarian missions directly
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 37 of the NDM Act 2010 grants statutory authority to disaster management authorities to requisition private resources and premises for urgent rescue and relief.
Q. 18
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which national policy, approved in 2013, sets out Pakistan's vision to build disaster resilience through prevention, mitigation, and preparedness rather than reactive response?
A
National Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) Policy
✓ Correct
B
National Industrial Policy
C
National Health Ordinance
D
National Mineral Policy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The National DRR Policy (2013) marked a paradigm shift in Pakistan from post-disaster response and relief to proactive risk reduction, preparedness, and mainstreaming DRR into development.
Q. 19
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The National Disaster Risk Management Fund (NDRMF) in Pakistan was incorporated as a not-for-profit company under Section 42 of the Companies Act to:
A
Finance disaster risk reduction, climate adaptation projects, and disaster risk financing mechanisms
✓ Correct
B
Operate commercial airline services
C
Collect municipal real estate taxes
D
Manufacture emergency pharmaceutical drugs
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NDRMF was established with donor support (such as ADB) to provide non-lending grant financing for public and non-government DRR and climate change adaptation initiatives.
Q. 20
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which ministry currently serves as the administrative parent ministry / reporting channel for NDMA in the federal government structure?
A
Prime Minister's Office / Economic Affairs Division
✓ Correct
B
Ministry of Maritime Affairs
C
Ministry of Energy
D
Ministry of Information Technology
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NDMA functions under the Prime Minister's Office (and previously under the Ministry of Climate Change / Cabinet Division at various administrative junctures).
Q. 21
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which emergency rescue service established in Punjab under the Punjab Emergency Service Act 2006 serves as a frontline first responder during disasters in Pakistan?
A
Rescue 1122
✓ Correct
B
Civil Defence Patrol
C
Edhi Ambulance Service
D
National Highway Police
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Punjab Emergency Service (Rescue 1122) provides emergency ambulance, rescue, fire, and disaster recovery services and is certified under INSARAG guidelines.
Q. 22
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under the Civil Defence Act 1952 of Pakistan, which authority is responsible for coordinating air raid precautions, auxiliary fire services, and community warden training?
A
Directorate General of Civil Defence
✓ Correct
B
National Accountability Bureau
C
Board of Investment
D
Federal Board of Revenue
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Directorate General of Civil Defence (Ministry of Interior) oversees civil protection, auxiliary firefighting, first aid training, and bomb disposal capacity.
Q. 23
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the primary role of the Armed Forces of Pakistan in disaster management operations under Article 245 of the Constitution?
A
Acting in aid of civil power upon requisition by the federal/provincial government for rescue, evacuation, relief logistics, and engineering repairs
✓ Correct
B
Drafting national legislative bills
C
Levying customs tariffs
D
Managing commercial commodity exchanges
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Article 245 of the Constitution, the Armed Forces are called in aid of civil power to execute large-scale air/boat rescues, bridge repairs, and emergency logistics.
Q. 24
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under Section 40 of the NDM Act 2010, which body audits the accounts of the National Disaster Management Authority and the National Fund annually?
A
Auditor General of Pakistan (AGP)
✓ Correct
B
Private commercial audit firm without government oversight
C
State Bank of Pakistan Governor
D
Federal Tax Ombudsman
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The accounts of NDMA and the National Fund are audited annually by the Auditor General of Pakistan (AGP) in accordance with statutory government accounting rules.
Q. 25
Disaster Management
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which institutional committee at the district level brings together the DC, DPO, Army representative, civil defence, health, and irrigation officers for rapid disaster coordination?
A
District Disaster Management Advisory Committee / District Emergency Board
✓ Correct
B
District Bar Association
C
District Press Club
D
District Sports Council
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The District Emergency Board / DDMA committee ensures multi-sectoral coordination and resource pooling during flood, earthquake, or heatwave contingencies.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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