๐ Tier 1: Prepare & Study Guide
โ 100% Solved with Rationales
Sub-Assistant Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
Direct Departmental Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
6315 Total
Questions
~9473 mins Read
Time
4 Subject Areas
๐ฏ High-Yield Preparation Strategy
โ 100% Comprehensive Guide
๐ Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass
Examination Scheme, Preparation Blueprint, and Interview Master Guide for Sub-Assistant at Karachi Shipyard & Engineering Works Limited (KSEW)
๐ท 1. Official Examination Scheme & Mark Distribution
The examination for the position of Sub-Assistant at Karachi Shipyard & Engineering Works Limited (KSEW) is structured as follows:
- Total Questions: 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
- Total Duration: 100 Minutes
- Total Marks: 100 Marks
- Passing Aggregate Threshold: 50% (i.e., 50 Marks)
๐ Part I: English / Analytical (20%)
- Weightage: 20 Marks
- Content: This section assesses candidates on:
- Vocabulary
- Grammar
- Comprehension
- Analytical reasoning
- Example Questions:
- Synonyms and antonyms
- Sentence correction
- Reading comprehension passages followed by questions
๐ Part II: Core Professional Subject Domain (80%)
- Weightage: 80 Marks
- Content: This section covers technical knowledge relevant to the shipbuilding and engineering sector, including:
- Basic engineering principles
- Shipbuilding processes
- Safety regulations
- Quality control measures
- Example Questions:
- Identify the correct process for welding in shipbuilding.
- Explain the importance of stability in ship design.
๐ Negative Marking Rules
- Penalty: 0.25 marks will be deducted for each incorrect answer. This emphasizes the importance of accuracy in your responses.
๐ท 2. Topic-by-Topic Syllabus Breakdown & High-Yield Question Blueprint
๐ Part I: English / Analytical
- Vocabulary: Focus on maritime terminology and general English.
- Grammar: Tenses, prepositions, conjunctions, and punctuation.
- Comprehension: Reading passages related to engineering and shipbuilding.
- Analytical Reasoning: Logic puzzles and problem-solving scenarios.
๐ Part II: Core Professional Subject Domain
- Basic Engineering Principles:
- Concepts: Force, pressure, torque, and energy.
- Example Question: What is the formula for calculating pressure?
- Shipbuilding Processes:
- Concepts: Hull design, welding techniques, and assembly processes.
- Example Question: Describe the steps involved in the ship welding process.
- Safety Regulations:
- Concepts: Occupational safety standards, personal protective equipment (PPE).
- Example Question: What are the key components of a safety management system in shipbuilding?
- Quality Control Measures:
- Concepts: Inspection techniques, quality assurance protocols.
- Example Question: How do you ensure compliance with quality standards during ship construction?
๐ท 3. MCQ Problem-Solving Tactics, Time Allocation & Elimination Shortcuts
๐ Time Budgeting
- Target: Aim to spend no more than 50 seconds per question.
- Strategy: Quickly read and understand the question before looking at the options.
๐ Smart Elimination Techniques
- Distractor Options: Identify and eliminate clearly incorrect answers first.
- Inverted Question Traps: Pay close attention to questions phrased as "Which of the following is NOT..." to avoid common pitfalls.
๐ Risk Management
- Uncertain Questions: If unsure, consider leaving the question blank to avoid negative marking unless you can eliminate at least one option.
๐ท 4. Departmental Interview / Viva Voce Masterclass (Phase 2 Selection)
๐ Probable Interview Questions
- Technical Knowledge:
- Question: Can you explain the significance of the keel in ship design?
๐ก Model Answer:*: The keel is the backbone of a ship, providing structural integrity and stability. It is crucial for the ship's performance and safety.
- Situational Judgment:
- Question: How would you handle a situation where a safety protocol is being ignored on site?
๐ก Model Answer:*: I would immediately address the issue with the personnel involved, reiterate the importance of safety protocols, and report the incident to my supervisor to ensure corrective measures are taken.
- Behavioral Assessment:
- Question: Describe a time when you had to work as part of a team.
๐ก Model Answer:*: In my previous role, I collaborated with engineers and technicians to complete a project under a tight deadline. Effective communication and delegation of tasks led to our success.
- Ethical Integrity:
- Question: What would you do if you discovered a colleague was cutting corners to meet deadlines?
๐ก Model Answer:*: I would discuss my concerns with the colleague first, emphasizing the importance of quality and safety. If the behavior continued, I would escalate the issue to management to protect the integrity of our work.
- Problem-Solving:
- Question: How would you approach a technical problem that you have never encountered before?
๐ก Model Answer:*: I would first gather as much information as possible, consult with more experienced colleagues, and research the issue. If necessary, I would also refer to technical manuals or guidelines.
๐ท 5. Recommended Standard Textbooks, Statutory Codes & Authoritative References
๐ Textbooks
- Engineering Mechanics by J.L. Meriam and L.G. Kraige
- Ship Design and Construction by Thomas Lamb
- Quality Control in Manufacturing by Dale H. Besterfield
๐ Statutory Codes
- Pakistan Shipbuilding and Ship Repair Industry Act
- Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Standards
๐ Reference Sources
- International Maritime Organization (IMO) Guidelines
- American Bureau of Shipping (ABS) Rules for Building and Classing Steel Vessels
๐ Online Resources
- KSEW Official Website: For updates on policies and procedures.
- Engineering Forums: For peer discussions and problem-solving.
By following this comprehensive guide, candidates can prepare effectively for the Sub-Assistant position at KSEW, ensuring they are well-equipped for both the examination and the subsequent interview process.
๐
Instructions / Reading Passage
15 Questions in this set
COMPUTER APTITUDE (Word Processing Basics): Solve multiple-choice questions regarding MS Word document creation, the Ribbon interface, the Office button, and basic formatting tools like Live Preview and the Mini toolbar.
Q. 1
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Word processing programs are used to create:
A
Reports
B
Memos and letters
C
Envelopes and labels
D
All of the above
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Word processors are versatile tools designed for a wide range of professional and personal document types.
Q. 2
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Word processing includes the process of:
A
Entering text
B
Editing text
C
Formatting document
D
All of the above
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The workflow involves inputting raw text, modifying content, and applying visual styles.
Q. 3
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
________ button is located on the top left corner of Word screen:
A
Microsoft Office button
โ Correct
B
Ribbon
C
Microsoft Home
D
Save
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In Word 2007, this button houses file management commands like Open, Save, and Print.
Q. 4
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The ________ is the panel at the top of the document:
A
Ribbons
โ Correct
B
Office button
C
Tab
D
Quick Access Toolbar
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ribbon is the primary interface element that organizes commands into logical groups and tabs.
Q. 5
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Tabs that organize commands into groups are located on the ________ in Word:
A
Ribbon
โ Correct
B
Office button
C
Status bar
D
Quick Access Toolbar
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ribbon architecture uses tabs to categorize related functions for easier user access.
Q. 6
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The most common commands such as Open, Print, and Save can be found on the:
A
Insert tab
B
Format tab
C
Home tab
D
Office menu
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Primary file handling and output commands are centralized in the Office menu/button.
Q. 7
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A special toolbar that is used to format currently selected text is referred to as the:
A
Quick Access tool bar
B
Shortcut toolbar.
C
Mini toolbar
โ Correct
D
Formatting toolbar
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Mini Toolbar appears automatically near the selection to provide quick formatting options.
Q. 8
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The feature that allows you to see the result of formatting changes on selected text before applying the formatting is referred to as:
A
Current Preview
B
Format Preview
C
Live Preview
โ Correct
D
Quick Preview
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Live Preview gives an instantaneous visual update of how a style will look before it is finalized.
Q. 9
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Change to a different tab by clicking the tab:
A
Number
B
Name
โ Correct
C
Color
D
All of the above
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Users navigate between functional areas of the Ribbon by clicking the specific tab names.
Q. 10
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The Home tab contains all of the following groups EXCEPT group:
A
Editing
B
Clipboard
C
Font
D
File
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
File management is handled by the Office button/menu, not the Home tab groups.
Q. 11
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Where is the status bar located in Word?
A
On the left
B
On the right
C
Below the Ribbon
D
At the bottom
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Status Bar is fixed at the base of the window to display page numbers and word counts.
Q. 12
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The status bar in Word contains all of the following EXCEPT the:
A
Total number of words
B
Filename
โ Correct
C
Total number of pages
D
Current page of the document
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Filenames are typically displayed in the Title Bar at the top, not the Status Bar.
Q. 13
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Where is the Zoom slider located?
A
On the right side of the Ribbon
B
Below the title bar
C
On the right edge of the status bar
โ Correct
D
On the right side of office button
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The slider allows for quick adjustment of document magnification from the bottom right corner.
Q. 14
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following contain on the status bar of Word?
A
View commands
โ Correct
B
Minitoolbar
C
Quick Access toolbar
D
Gallery
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Shortcut buttons for switching document layouts (Print, Web, etc.) are found on the Status Bar.
Q. 15
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Where is the Print Preview command found?
A
On the status bar
B
On the Office menu
โ Correct
C
On the Print tab
D
On the Title- bar
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Print Preview is part of the Print sub-menu located within the main Office button menu.
๐
Instructions / Reading Passage
10 Questions in this set
MS WORD NAVIGATION & MODES: Write the correct answer for questions involving document views (Print Layout, Draft, Full Screen), zoom controls, and shortcut keys for new documents and saving.
Q. 16
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The default document name at the start of MS Word is:
A
Document1
โ Correct
B
File1
C
WPD1
D
Word1
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Word assigns generic sequential names to new unsaved documents starting with Document1.
Q. 17
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following allows you to look at the document to determine how a printed copy will display?
A
Print Preview
โ Correct
B
Document Preview
C
View side by side
D
Full Screen Reading
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This mode accurately represents the final physical layout of the document on paper.
Q. 18
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which button controls the magnification of the document that is displayed?
A
Grow
B
Enlarge
C
Zoom
โ Correct
D
Expand
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Zoom tool allows users to increase or decrease the visual size of the text on screen.
Q. 19
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which view is the default in Word?
A
Print Layout
โ Correct
B
Draft View
C
Outline View
D
Full screen Reading view
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Print Layout is the standard working view as it shows margins, headers, and footers.
Q. 20
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which view removes tabs from the display on your screen?
A
Print Layout
B
Draft view
C
Outline View
D
Full screen Reading view
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This mode maximizes screen space for reading by hiding editing tools and ribbons.
Q. 21
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Area in which text is entered, manipulated & viewed is called:
A
Text area
B
Documentation area
C
Document window
โ Correct
D
Window
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The central workspace where users directly interact with document content.
Q. 22
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following document view is best for typing and editing quickly?
A
Draft view
โ Correct
B
Web Layout view
C
Document view
D
Outline view
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Draft view is specifically optimized for quick text entry, rapid typing, and simple content editing. It hides complex formatting elementsโsuch as headers, footers, page borders, margins, and graphics. This uncluttered workspace saves system memory and lets you focus entirely on your content without layout distractions.
Q. 23
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which key is used for creating a new document?
A
CTRL+N
โ Correct
B
ALT+N
C
CTRL+SHIFT+N
D
ALT+SHIFT+N
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The standard Windows and Office keyboard shortcut for initiating a blank new file.
Q. 24
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following command is used store another copy of existing document with different name or as a different format?
A
Save As
โ Correct
B
Store
C
Copy
D
Convert
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Save As allows for file duplication or changing file extensions/locations.
Q. 25
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Key for renaming a file is:
A
F4
B
F2
โ Correct
C
CTRL+F3
D
None of these
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
F2 is the universal Windows shortcut to initiate renaming of a selected file or item.
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Q. 1
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Rules of Business 1973 are framed under which Article of the Constitution of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan?
A
Article 90 and Article 99
โ Correct
B
Article 48 and Article 58
C
Article 175 and Article 212
D
Article 240 and Article 242
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Articles 90 and 99(3) of the Constitution of Pakistan, the Federal Government makes rules for the allocation and transaction of its business (the Rules of Business, 1973).
Q. 2
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under the Rules of Business 1973, what is a 'Division' defined as?
A
A self-contained administrative unit responsible for the conduct of business of the Federal Government in a distinct specified sphere and declared as such by Federal Government
โ Correct
B
A military infantry brigade
C
A revenue divisional commissioner's regional territory
D
A commercial branch of a state bank
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 2(vii) of the Rules of Business 1973 defines 'Division' as a self-contained administrative unit responsible for the conduct of business of the Federal Government in a distinct specified sphere.
Q. 3
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 4 of the Rules of Business 1973, who is the official administrative head of a Division and assists the Federal Minister in the formulation and execution of policy?
A
The Secretary to the Federal Government (in-charge of the Division)
โ Correct
B
The Section Officer
C
The Director General of the Attached Department
D
The Cabinet Secretary alone
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 4(1) provides: In each Division there shall be a Secretary who shall be the official head of the Division and shall assist the Minister in charge in the formulation of policy and shall be responsible for its proper execution.
Q. 4
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 4(5) of the Rules of Business 1973, who is designated as the 'Principal Accounting Officer' (PAO) of the Ministry / Division?
A
The Secretary of the Division
โ Correct
B
The Federal Minister
C
The Accountant General Pakistan Revenues (AGPR)
D
The Chief Finance and Accounts Officer (CFAO)
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 4(5) dictates that the Secretary shall be the Principal Accounting Officer (PAO) of the Division, its Attached Departments, and Subordinate Offices, personally accountable for budgetary propriety to the Public Accounts Committee.
Q. 5
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In the Federal Secretariat of Pakistan, what is an 'Attached Department' under the Rules of Business 1973?
A
A department with the status of an attached department under Schedule III, providing executive operational machinery to implement policy decisions of a Division
โ Correct
B
An additional room attached to the Minister's office
C
A municipal corporation running local parks
D
A foreign diplomatic embassy in Islamabad
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Attached Departments (listed in Schedule III to the Rules of Business) are specialized executive field organizations headed by Directors General/Inspectors General that execute policies formulated by the Secretariat Division.
Q. 6
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which Schedule to the Rules of Business 1973 specifies the 'Distribution of Business among the Divisions'?
A
Schedule II
โ Correct
B
Schedule I
C
Schedule IV
D
Schedule VII
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Schedule II of the Rules of Business 1973 details the exact allocation and distribution of statutory functions and executive subjects among all the Divisions of the Federal Government.
Q. 7
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which Schedule to the Rules of Business 1973 lists the 'List of Attached Departments' affiliated with each Division?
A
Schedule III
โ Correct
B
Schedule I
C
Schedule V
D
Schedule VI
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Schedule III explicitly enumerates all statutory Attached Departments of the Federal Government mapped to their parent administrative Divisions.
Q. 8
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 8 of the Rules of Business 1973, which Division must be mandatorily consulted on any proposal involving financial expenditure, taxes, foreign aid, or terms and conditions affecting salary/pension?
A
Finance Division
โ Correct
B
Cabinet Division
C
Establishment Division
D
Planning, Development & Special Initiatives Division
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 8 mandates that no Division shall, without prior consultation with the Finance Division, authorize any proposal that directly or indirectly affects the finances of the Federation or involves public expenditure.
Q. 9
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 9 of the Rules of Business 1973, which Division must be mandatorily consulted on legal advice, interpretation of any constitutional provision or law, and drafting of all official legislation/ordinances?
A
Law and Justice Division
โ Correct
B
Interior Division
C
Cabinet Division
D
Establishment Division
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 9 requires all Divisions to consult the Law and Justice Division on all legal questions, interpretation of statutes, drafting of bills, statutory rules and orders (SROs), and international treaties.
Q. 10
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 10 of the Rules of Business 1973, which Division must be mandatorily consulted on general service conditions, recruitment rules, framing of service cadres, and civil service disciplinary rules?
A
Establishment Division
โ Correct
B
Finance Division
C
Planning Commission
D
Parliamentary Affairs Division
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 10 stipulates that no Division shall issue any orders affecting terms and conditions of civil service, framing of recruitment rules, or organizational restructuring without prior consultation with the Establishment Division.
Q. 11
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 11 of the Rules of Business 1973, which Division must be consulted on all foreign relations matters, treaties, and visits of foreign delegations?
A
Foreign Affairs Division
โ Correct
B
Commerce Division
C
Interior Division
D
Defence Division
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 11 requires mandatory consultation with the Foreign Affairs Division on all international agreements, interactions with foreign governments, and attendance at international conferences.
Q. 12
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 14 of the Rules of Business 1973, where two or more Divisions disagree on an inter-ministerial policy matter after formal consultation, how is the dispute resolved?
A
The matter is submitted to the Prime Minister (or the Cabinet) for decision, typically via a joint Summary
โ Correct
B
The matter is referred to the Supreme Court for commercial arbitration
C
The Division with the oldest Secretary wins automatically
D
The matter is immediately abandoned and dropped permanently
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 14(1) dictates that if the consulting Divisions cannot reach an agreement, the initiating Division shall submit the case to the Prime Minister (or to the Cabinet) for a final binding decision.
Q. 13
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 16 of the Rules of Business 1973, which of the following cases MUST be brought before the Federal Cabinet?
A
Proposals for federal legislation (including Presidential Ordinances), key international treaties, Annual Budget Statement, and major policy decisions
โ Correct
B
Granting casual leave to a junior clerk
C
Purchasing office stationery under Rs. 10,000
D
Repairing a broken office water cooler
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 16(1) lists cases that must be brought before Cabinet: legislative proposals, treaties, national budget, broad policy shifts, implementation of national plans, and matters where ministers disagree.
Q. 14
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 18 of the Rules of Business 1973, how is a case submitted to the Federal Cabinet for consideration?
A
In the form of a concise, self-contained memorandum termed a 'Summary for the Cabinet'
โ Correct
B
By sending all raw historical paper files in physical sacks
C
By sending an informal WhatsApp text to ministers
D
By publishing a notice in a local daily newspaper
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 18 requires that a case submitted for Cabinet consideration shall take the form of a 'Summary for the Cabinet', drafted concisely and objectively by the sponsoring Division.
Q. 15
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the standard mandatory components of a 'Summary for the Cabinet' prepared under Rule 18 of the Rules of Business 1973?
A
Heading, Sponsoring Division, Subject, Background/Facts of the case, Proposal, Views of consulted Divisions, and explicit approval sought from Cabinet
โ Correct
B
Only the signatures of junior clerks
C
Photographs of office furniture
D
Full transcripts of court arguments
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Rule 18(2) and Cabinet Secretariat guidelines, a Cabinet Summary must be structured with: Heading, Sponsoring Division, Subject, History/Facts, Financial/Legal Implications, Views of Ministries consulted, and specific Recommendation/Proposal.
Q. 16
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 18(6) of the Rules of Business 1973, a Summary for the Cabinet must be approved and signed by the:
A
Minister in charge (and initiated by the Secretary of the Division)
โ Correct
B
Section Officer only
C
Supreme Court Registrar
D
Private sector corporate contractor
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Rule 18(6), every Summary for the Cabinet must be signed by the Minister-in-charge (or Minister of State) before transmission to the Cabinet Secretary.
Q. 17
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 17 of the Rules of Business 1973, can a decision of the Federal Cabinet be taken by 'Circulation' without convening a physical meeting?
A
Yes, if the Prime Minister so directs, the Cabinet Secretary circulates the summary to Ministers for their written views within a prescribed time limit
โ Correct
B
No, circulation is strictly forbidden under the Constitution
C
Yes, but only during wartime emergencies
D
Only if approved by unanimous parliamentary resolution
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 17(1) provides for Cabinet Decision by Circulation: When the Prime Minister so directs, the Cabinet Secretary circulates the summary to all Ministers, and if accepted without objection, it is recorded as a Cabinet decision.
Q. 18
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Who records the official minutes and decisions of the Federal Cabinet meetings in Pakistan?
A
The Cabinet Secretary (head of the Cabinet Division)
โ Correct
B
The Attorney General of Pakistan
C
The Speaker of the National Assembly
D
The Secretary Law
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Rule 20 of the Rules of Business, the Cabinet Secretary attends all Cabinet meetings and is responsible for preparing and circulating the formal record of decisions of the Cabinet.
Q. 19
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 24 of the Rules of Business 1973, which major statutory standing committee of the Federal Cabinet coordinates and approves macro-economic and financial policy decisions?
A
Economic Coordination Committee (ECC) of the Cabinet
โ Correct
B
Cabinet Committee on Sports
C
National Assembly Public Accounts Committee
D
Senate Standing Committee on Defence
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Economic Coordination Committee (ECC) of the Cabinet is the principal executive economic committee of the Federal Government, chaired by the Finance Minister, taking decisions on pricing, imports, subsidies, and fiscal stability.
Q. 20
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 24, which standing committee of the Federal Cabinet is responsible for reviewing and approving privatization proposals and restructuring of State-Owned Enterprises (SOEs)?
A
Cabinet Committee on Privatization (CCOP)
โ Correct
B
Council of Common Interests (CCI)
C
National Economic Council (NEC)
D
Federal Public Service Commission (FPSC)
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Cabinet Committee on Privatization (CCOP) reviews privatization transactions, disinvestment strategies, and restructuring plans for public sector commercial enterprises.
Q. 21
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 24, which Cabinet Committee reviews energy sector policies, power tariffs, and fuel supply contracts in Pakistan?
A
Cabinet Committee on Energy (CCoE)
โ Correct
B
Cabinet Committee on Disposal of Legislative Cases (CCLC)
C
Cabinet Committee on Institutional Reforms (CCIR)
D
Atomic Energy Commission
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Cabinet Committee on Energy (CCoE) oversees petroleum, power generation, LNG imports, and circular debt management across the national energy sector.
Q. 22
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 24, which Cabinet Committee is mandated to scrutinize, review, and clear legislative drafts, bills, and ordinances before submission to the full Cabinet?
A
Cabinet Committee for Disposal of Legislative Cases (CCLC)
โ Correct
B
Economic Coordination Committee (ECC)
C
Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
D
National Security Committee (NSC)
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The CCLC (Cabinet Committee for Disposal of Legislative Cases), chaired by the Minister for Law & Justice, conducts detailed clause-by-clause legal examination of draft legislation prior to Cabinet endorsement.
Q. 23
Office Governance
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which Schedule to the Rules of Business 1973 lists cases that must be submitted to the Prime Minister for his prior personal approval?
A
Schedule V-A and Schedule V-B
โ Correct
B
Schedule I
C
Schedule II
D
Schedule VII
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Schedule V-A lists cases to be submitted to the Prime Minister for his orders, and Schedule V-B lists cases to be submitted to the Prime Minister for information.
Q. 24
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 15(1) of the Rules of Business 1973, who is the competent authority to appoint a Federal Secretary to head a Division?
A
The Prime Minister of Pakistan
โ Correct
B
The Federal Public Service Commission
C
The President on advice of the Senate
D
The Chief Justice of Pakistan
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under the Rules of Business and Civil Servants (APT) Rules, the appointment and transfer of Secretaries and Additional Secretaries to the Federal Government (BS-21/22) is made by the Prime Minister.
Q. 25
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In the Federal Secretariat, what is the role of a 'Minister of State' under the Rules of Business?
A
A junior minister appointed to assist the Federal Minister in a Division, performing duties assigned by the Federal Minister or Prime Minister
โ Correct
B
The governor of a province
C
An ambassador representing Pakistan abroad
D
The chief minister of a federal territory
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Rule 5, a Minister of State performs such functions and exercises such powers in the Division as may be assigned to him by the Federal Minister or Prime Minister.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
โ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
โ Correct
D
abdicate
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
โ Correct
D
concord
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
โ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
โ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
โ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
โ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
โ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
โ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
โ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
โ Correct
D
sensitive
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
โ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
โ Correct
D
distract
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
โ Correct
C
passion
D
power
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
โ Correct
D
abundant
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
โ Correct
D
discharge
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
โ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
โ Correct
D
equivocate
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
โ Correct
D
crazy
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
โ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
โ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
โ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
โ Correct
D
Mars
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
โ Correct
D
None of these
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
โ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
โ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
โ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
โ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
โ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
โ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
โ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
โ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
โ Correct
C
27
D
23
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
โ Correct
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
โ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
โ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
โ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
โ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
โ Correct
D
None of these
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
โ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
โ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
โ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
โ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
โ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
๐ก
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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